Phil S.

asked • 10/10/16

some true and false about the chain rule ( I don't understand the notation or the question)

part b) (fg)'(x) is never equal to f'(x)g'(x)
 
part d) if the derivative of f(g(x)) is equal to the derivative of f(x) for all of x, then g(x)=x for all x
 
Part e) suppose that f'' and g'' exist and that f and g are concave up for all x, then f(g(x)) is concave up for all x.
 
So I have to determine is these are true or false but I don't understand what they are saying. Please help me.

3 Answers By Expert Tutors

By:

Arshya F. answered • 10/10/16

Tutor
New to Wyzant

Univ. of Toronto Grad for Math/Physics, Electrical Eng. tutoring

Arshya F.

The first statement is the product rule. you missed f'(x)g(x) + f(x)g'(x) = f'(x)x + f(x) and it's not equal to f'(x). The argument does not hold. 
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10/10/16

Peter G.

tutor
The student said chain rule in the title. The student omitted the function composition symbol º
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10/10/16

Michael J. answered • 10/10/16

Tutor
5 (5)

Applying SImple Math to Everyday Life Activities

Phil S.

It would be true since e to any power is the same function for each derivative. since this is a positive function to start, it would end positive....
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10/10/16

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