Ira S. answered 10/09/16
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The probability that you roll a 1 on a single die is 1/6 for each roll.
So if you want exactly 2 occurrences, that would be (1/6)2 * (5/6)8 . That's a 1 twice and something else 8 times to make up all ten rolls.
But we're not done. The 1 could have been on the first two rolls, the last two rolls, the third and fifth roll....we don't know.
That's why you need to multiply this answer by 10C2, (I hope you know this notation) which equals (10*9)/(2*1)=45.
So your answer is 45*(1/6)2*(5/6)8 = .2907 or approximately 29%of the time.
Hope this helped.

Kenneth S.
Using the Binomial Distribution Commands on Ti-83 or 84:
Commands for binomial distributions (Bernoulli Trials), p = PROBABILITY OF SUCCESS, n TRIALS:
• binompdf (n, p) to produce the entire list of probabilities, x from 0 to n
• binomcdf (n, p, k) to get the (cumulative) probability of any x value from 0 to k.
10/09/16