
Iordan G. answered 05/29/24
PhD mathematician and data scientist, patient and enthusiastic
The answer depends on whether the selection happens with replacement or without.
With replacement, there are 1010 possibilities for picking ten numbers, so the probability of a particular sequence is p=1/1010. To obtain the odds, we use the formula:
odds = p/(1-p) = (1/1010)/(1 - 1/1010) = 1/(1010 -1)
Without replacement, there are 10! possibilities, so the probability of a particular sequence is 1/10!. To obtain the odds, we again use the formula:
odds = p/(1-p) = (1/10!)/(1 - 1/10!) = 1/(10! -1)
Hope this helps and let me know if you need more clarification on any step!

Iordan G.
Hi Jim, good question, thanks. Yup, that's exactly what I mean by without replacement. And the odds will be 1 in 10!-1. Since 10-factorial is equal to 3,628,800, you can also express the odds as: 1 in 3,628,799. Hope that answers your question, feel free to ask a follow-up if not!05/29/24
Jim L.
Please excuse my math ignorance, I'm assuming when you say 'without replacement' this means that the number picked is not put back in the pot anymore. So, in plain terms, without replacement, the odds of picking numbers 1 through 10 in order is 1 in how many? (Like saying 1 in 26 million or what is it exactly? Sorry I can't do that math) Thank you!05/29/24