Sehnz O. answered 10/07/23
Ace Math Tutor: Transforming Students' Struggles into Success
Let f(x) = 1
Then the laplace transform of 1 is
L[1] = ∫0∞ e-px f(x) dx
then the right hand side becomes
= ∫0∞ e-px 1 dx
= ∫0∞ e-px dx
Now find the integral
= [ (-e-px ⁄ p)]0∞ + C
= substituting the intervals
= [ (-e-p∞ ⁄ p) - (-e-p0 ⁄ p)]
= [ (-e-∞ ⁄ p) - (-e-0 ⁄ p)]
Since ∞ is in the denominator, it drives the fraction towards 0
= [ 0 + e0 ⁄ p]
= [ 1/p]
So, the laplace transform of 1 is 1/p
the lapalce transform of 2 is 2/p
and so on.