Ashley P.
asked 05/15/22Statistics - Expected Value
A process for producing an industrial chemical yields a product containing two types of impurities.
For a specified sample from this process, let Y1 denote the proportion of impurities in the sample and let Y2 denote the proportion of type I impurities among all impurities found. Suppose that the joint distribution of Y1 and Y2 can be modeled by the following probability density function:
f(y, y2) = 2(1- y2) if 0<=y1<=1 , 0<=y2<=1 and 0 otherwise
Find expected value of the proportion of type I impurities in the sample.
1 Expert Answer
Bryn T. answered 05/17/22
Experienced Econ Graduate Student
Using Roger's notation, the question asks for the expected value of the sample proportion of chemicals containing type I impurities. So, we should be looking for EX, not EZ = E (X*Y).
(X*Y is the event that impurities of both types are found in the chemical... so, I have no idea why Roger is trying to find E(XY) ???)
Once you know that you are looking for EX, you first find the marginal distribution of X from the joint distribution of X and Y:
f(X) = ∫f(X,Y)dY = ∫01 2(1-Y)dY = 2Y - Y2 |10 = (2 - 12) - (0 - 02) = 1
Therefore, EX = ∫011dX = 1 !!!
In other words, every sample is expected to have the type I impurity!
(This is a bit silly/extreme, which is why I thought the problem had a misprint in the joint distribution of X and Y.)
Ashley P.
Hello Bryn! Thanks for the answer. But notice that they're asking us to find us the expected value of the proportion of type I impurities in the sample. So if we take the proportion of type I impurities in the sample as Z, Z = Y1*Y2 Because Y1 is the proportion of impurities in the sample and Y2 is the proportion of type I impurities among all impurities(Y1). So here, Y2 is given as a proportion of Y1. So, in this case, to find the absolute proportion of type I impurities in the sample, we need to take it as Y1*Y2. Eg: Say, the proportion of impurities in the sample is 0.5 and 1/3 of all the impurities in the sample are type I impurities. So to get the actual proportion of type I impurities in the sample, we need to take 0.5*1/3, which is same as Y1*Y205/17/22
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Bryn T.
Note that Y1 should equal the proportion of impurities of type I and Y2 = proportion of impurities of type II. Second, is the joint pdf correct? You don't define y, and there is no y in the pdf formula, yet you have a range for y1. Fix the question, and I can give you an answer!05/16/22