Bryn T. answered 05/17/22
Experienced Econ Graduate Student
Given: wheat is price inelastic (so the |P.E.D.| < 1) and the income elasticity of demand (IED) > 0, but less than 1.
a) If the Pwheat increases, then the quantity demanded of wheat falls, but falls by a smaller percentage than the increase in the price of wheat (since wheat is inelastic). The total spending on wheat = P*Q, and since the increase in P is "larger" than the decrease in Q, total spending increases.
b) As income rises, the positive IED tells us that quantity demanded of wheat also will rise, so wheat is a NORMAL good.
c) As income increases over time, because the IED < 1, the percentage increase in quantity demanded will be less than the percentage increase in income. This means that wheat will become a smaller and smaller part of the person's overall budget over time (i.e. the fraction of consumer income spent on wheat will decrease over time).
Note: All of these answers can be demonstrated numerically if you pick explicit values for the PED and IED. Try PED = -0.5 and IED = 0.8. Then suppose in parts and c that the percentage increases in price and income are both 10%.