
Mauricio M. answered 12/03/21
Credentialed Secondary Math Teacher
Hello Rav,
For a fixed value of p, as the value of n increases the shape of the binomial distribution for a random variable becomes bell shaped (or approximately normal). As a rule of thumb, we check the normality condition
np(1-p)>=10 to determine whether a normal distribution may be used to approximate a binomial distribution.
Part a) we are given n = 50 and p = 0.4
Substituting into the normality condition we have,
50*(0.4)*(1-0.4) = 12 >=10
So, we conclude that, yes a normal probability distribution may be used.
Part b) we are given n = 40 and p = 0.12
Substituting into the normality condition we have,
40*(0.12)*(0.88) = 4.224 < 10
Hence, no a normal probability may not be used.