Skylar P. answered 12/02/21
Introductory and AP Statistics Teacher & Tutor
In bag 1:
40% of the chips are real, and of those, 30% are Ceasar's. 30% of 40% is 0.3*40% = 12%. So 12% of all the chips are real Ceasar's chips.
100%-40%=60% of the chips are fake, and of those, 10% are Ceasar's. 10% of 60% of 0.1*60% = 6%. So 6% of all the chips are fake Ceasar's chips.
Adding the real and fake Ceasar's chips, 18% of the chips in the first bag are Ceasar's. 12/18 = 2/3 of the Ceasar's chips are real.
In bag 2: 40% of the chips are real, and of those, 90% are Ceasar's. 90% of 40% is 0.9*40% = 36%. So 36% of all the chips are real Ceasar's chips.
100%-40%=60% of the chips are fake, and of those, 30% are Ceasar's. 30% of 60% of 0.3*60% = 18%. So 18% of all the chips are fake Ceasar's chips.
Adding the real and fake Ceasar's chips, 54% of the chips in the second bag are Ceasar's. 36/54 = 2/3 of the Ceasar's chips are real.
You can do the same thing, using the probabilities for Harrah's. For example, since 30% of the real chips in the first bag are Ceasar's, that means that 100%-30% = 70% of the real chips in the first bag are Harrah's. Then you follow the same procedure.
To finish answering the question, you will compare the final proportions for Ceasar's, and then compare them for Harrah's. You would rather have a random chip from the bag with the higher proportion of real chips.
Ryan K.
thank you so much!12/03/21