Vitaliy V. answered 11/09/21
PhD in Mathematics with 20+ Years of Teaching Experience
Let f1(t) be be the distance that the 1st car has travelled by the time t after the start.
f2(t) be the distance for the 2nd car.
Because the cars start a race at the same time (t=0) and end it at the same time (denote the end time as T)
f1(0) = f2(0) = 0, f1(T) = f2(T)
Consider a new function g(t) = f1(t) - f2(t)
g(0) = 0, g(T) = 0, and g'(t)= f1'(t) - f2'(t)
By the mean value theorem there is a moment t*, 0<t*<T, such that
g'(t*) = (g(T) - g(0)) / (T-0) = 0
g'(t*) = f1'(t*) - f2'(t*) = 0, so f1'(t*) = f2'(t*)
At the moment t* both cars have the same speed.
Vitaliy V.
MVT (mean value theorem) is a generalization of Rolle's theorem. It is possible to apply Rolle's theorem instead of MVT in this proof, but MVT provides the same result.11/10/21
Nudar H.
Can you tell me what this expression means ( t*)11/12/21
Vitaliy V.
t* means a number between 0 and T for that the derivative is 0. Instead of t* you can use any letter, like c. MVT (and Rolle's theorem) claims that such number has to exist.11/12/21
Anthony T.
isn't g'(t*) = (g(T) - g(0)) / (T-0) = 0 Rolle's theorem?11/09/21