J.R. S. answered 11/08/21
Ph.D. University Professor with 10+ years Tutoring Experience
There's a lot here so I'm going to answer the first part, and maybe someone else will chime in for the 2nd half. If not, perhaps you can re-submit the 2nd part as a separate question and if I have time and see it, I'll answer it at a later time. Sorry, but don't have the time right now, but wanted to at least give you the first part.
KE = hν − ϕ
KE = 6.97x10-19 J
h = Planks constant = 6.626x10-34 Js
ν = frequency = 5.74x1015 s
Φ = work function
Solving for Φ
Φ = 3.11×10-18J / electron
3.11x10-18 J/electron x 6.023x1023 electrons/mol x 1kJ/1000 J = 1872 kJ/mol
maximum wavelength:
E = hc/λ
3.11x10-18 J = (6.626x10-34 Js) (3x108 m/s) / λ
λ = 6.40x10-8 m = 64.0 nm
(c) ∆E = RZ2(1/nf2 - 1/ni2)
∆E = change in energy
R = 2.179x10-18 J
Z = atomic number of B = 5
nf = final energy level = 1
ni - initial energy level = 11
∆E = 2.179x10-18 J ( 5)2 (1/112- 1/12)
∆E = 5.45x10-17 J (0.00826 - 1) = 5.45x10-17 J (-0.992)
∆E = -5.41x10-17 J
This energy is greater than the energy above (3.11x10-18 J) and so should be sufficient to eject an electron from the metal in parts (a) and (b).
I strongly suggest that you check and double check my math as I've been known to make careless mistakes.
Jason B.
alright thank you very much agian sorry to be a bother, Also im not sure if you can check out the other question I posted If you could help me with that one that would be great11/08/21
Jason B.
hey are u able to solve for part c of the question I can't figure out what to do for it11/08/21