Tom K. answered 04/16/21
Knowledgeable and Friendly Math and Statistics Tutor
The easiest way to solve this exactly is to use Excel's binom.dist formula and find P(X <= 14) - {(X <= 10) with the probability 1/6 (the probability of getting a 1); the final 1 in the formula indicates that we have the cumulative probability rather than the probability of the value given (the probability mass function).
binom.dist(14,100,1/6,1) - binom.dist(10,100,1/6,1) = 1244725
Of course, using binom.dist, you could solve this using
binom.dist(11,100,1/6,0)+binom.dist(12,100,1/6,0)+binom.dist(13,100,1/6,0)+binom.dist(14,100,1/6,0)
Note the change from 1 to 0 in the parentheses, This would be P(11) + P(12) + P(13) + P(14)
You can solve using the binomial distribution formula P(x) = C(100,x)(1/6)^x(5/6)^(100-x) and add P(11)+P(12)+P(13)+P(14)
The final way, taught in statistics, is using a normal distribution approximation to the binomial distribution.