
Bradford T. answered 04/07/21
Retired Engineer / Upper level math instructor
Try derivatives for Maclaurin series for each that match the coefficients
sin:
f(0) = sin(0) = 0
f'(0) = cos(0) = 1 No
cos:
f(0) = cos(0) = 1
f'(0) = -sin(0) = 0
f"(0) = -cos(0) = -1
f'''(0) = sin(0) = 0
fiv(0) = cos(0) = 1 A candidate
ln:
f(0) = ln(0) undefined. so NO .... Usually ln(x+1) is converted to Maclaurin series
ex:
f(0) = e0 = 1
f'(0) = e0 = 1 NO
The answer is B, cos(x)