J.R. S. answered • 03/08/21
Ph.D. University Professor with 10+ years Tutoring Experience
Yes. The absolute temperature that corresponds to the Celsius scale is Kelvin. And yes, the inverse is simply 1/T in Kelvin. Unfortunately, I can't tell you what "m" stands for without knowing more about the equation or the problem you are trying to solve. I've never hear of milli Kelvin and doubt that exists. If the m stands for moles, then (mK)-1 would be 1 / (moles)(K). Can you provide additional information about what problem you are working on?
J.R. S.
03/08/21
Lily S.
Sorry, he wrote convert to mk^-1 equivalent to m(K)^-1. Would it still be 3.4mK^-1 ? I'm assuming so. Thanks for all the help! I had never heard of millikelvin either.03/08/21
J.R. S.
03/08/21
Lily S.
I'm sorry, one last thing I'm still a bit confused about. Since it says milliK, would 294.05K first, as you said, be 1/294.05K=0.003400K^-1. That converted to millikelvin is 0.00000340078? Do I just write 3.4x10^-6mK^-1?03/08/21
J.R. S.
03/08/21
Lily S.
Thank you so much!!!03/08/21
Lily S.
It's for my lab report on vapor pressure of ethanol. I got that vapor pressure (1 of 20) is 44.5 mmHg with T=294.05. It tells me to calculate the inverse absolute temp and convert to (mK)^-1, then it says to prepare 3 graphs and that "note milli Kelvin" hence why I thought it meant milli Kelvin.03/08/21