Yefim S. answered 02/03/21
Math Tutor with Experience
Because on interval [0, π] function f(x) = cosx take all values from 1 = cos0 to -1 = cosπ and on this
interval each value cosx takes only once, so it one-to-one function
Nupur P.
asked 02/03/21When defining the inverse cosine function: cos^-1(x), the domain of the cos(theta) had to be restricted to angles theta on the interval:[0 pie,] only. Why?
Yefim S. answered 02/03/21
Math Tutor with Experience
Because on interval [0, π] function f(x) = cosx take all values from 1 = cos0 to -1 = cosπ and on this
interval each value cosx takes only once, so it one-to-one function
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