Daniel B. answered 01/30/21
A retired computer professional to teach math, physics
In calculating the odds, (80:20), the number of ways the lottery can select its 20 numbers,
never enters into the picture.
Think of it this way:
"chances of winning"
= "# ways to choose winning numbers" / "# ways to choose any numbers"
= "# ways lottery choses 20 numbers" × "# ways user choses 10 numbers to match the chosen 20"
/ "# ways lottery choses 20 numbers" × "# ways user choses 10 numbers"
Therefore "# ways lottery choses 20 numbers" cancels out in the fraction.
So you can calculate the odds by assuming having fixed chosen 20 numbers plus a BullsEye number.
First without BullsEye:
"chances of winning"
= "# ways user choses 10 number to match the chosen 20" / "# ways user choses 10 number"
= (20:10) / (80:10) = 1/8,911,711
Now with the BullsEye:
"chances of winning"
= "# ways user choses the BullsEye number" × "# ways user choses 9 numbers to match the remaining 19"
/ "# ways user choses 10 numbers"
= 1 × (19:9) / (80:10) = 1/17,823,422
Mx D.
The dividend and divisor seem to be flip-flopped in your example. (80:10/20:10) and (80:10)/(19:9) .....thanks much got me on the road again on my project .01/31/21

Daniel B.
01/31/21
Mx D.
Exactly what I was missing ..framing the problem correctly ...simple and concise answer.01/31/21