Naeema F.

asked • 06/12/20

Statistics Question

Suppose that Y1, Y2,...,Yn constitutes a random sample from the normal distribution with a mean of zero and variance σ2, such that σ2>0. Further, it has been shown that σthe MLE for σ2 is σ2-hat = (∑yi2)/n. Is this estimator unbiased?

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