Inactive Tutor answered 03/03/20
Let y = sin t and x = cos t. Then we are given that y - x = 1 or equivalently y = x + 1. From the Pythagorean identity, we must also have y2 + x2 = 1. Substituting y = x + 1 gives (x+1)2 + x2 = 1, which simplifies to 2x2 + 2x = 0. The last equation holds only when x is either 0 or -1. That is, when cos t = 0 or cos t = -1. These further occur when t = (2k+1)π/2 and t = (2k+1)π, respectively, taking k to be any integer. However, we must reject the values t = (4k+3)π/2 since they do not satisfy the given equation. This leaves t = (4k+1)π/2 or t = (2k+1)π.
Inactive Tutor
Simply because two functions f and g share the range [-1,1], we cannot conclude that solutions of f(t) - g(t) = 1 result in the form 1 - 0 or 0 - (-1). For example, consider the equation sin(2t) - cos t = 1. The two terms still have range [-1,1], but in addition to the solutions t = (2k+1)π, we have t = 2πk + 4.357 (approximately) even though neither sin(2t) nor cos t is +1/-1/0.03/03/20