
Daniel M. answered 12/28/19
Passionate Chemistry and Calculus Tutor w/ 6+ Years Experience
if f(x) = cos2(x) and g(x) = sin2(x) , to find (f+g)(x), we would do: f(x) + g(x) ➝ cos2(x) + sin2(x). Since x = π/16 in this case, the solution would be the sum of:
cos2(π/16)+ sin2(π/16).
However, as the poster above me stated, we can bypass the approximate values of each, sin and cos output, by using the trig identity:
cos2(x) + sin2(x) = 1
Therefore, it doesn’t matter what the x input is for this specific problem. And hence,
cos2(π/16)+ sin2(π/16) = 1