Asked • 08/05/19

Have grammar rules changed through the history of the English language?

When I want to know what form a word has say in 12th century (end Old English, begin Middle English), 14th century (end Middle English), or any other time in England history, I only need to track the word's etymology, and I've got the evolution of said word. But what about the grammar? Should I assume similar rules as the current ones? Is there also any consideration depending of the caste of the person speaking, such as a peasant in comparison to a clergyman or a noble? Is there any interesting reading or online resources on the subject I should know about? (If the scope of the question is too broad, area of interest are 12th century and 14th century.)

1 Expert Answer

By:

Kyle D. answered • 08/10/19

I enjoy helping you find your solution.

Still looking for help? Get the right answer, fast.

Ask a question for free

Get a free answer to a quick problem.
Most questions answered within 4 hours.

OR

Find an Online Tutor Now

Choose an expert and meet online. No packages or subscriptions, pay only for the time you need.