
Patrick B. answered 04/22/19
Math and computer tutor/teacher
Proof:
Given /assuming there are the same number of stats in each set, suppose there are K statistics.
X = {x1,x2, ..., xk}
Y = {y1,y2,...,yk}
avg(X) = (x1+x2+...+xk)/k
avg(Y) = (y1+y2+...+yk)/k
avg(x+y) = (x1+x2+...+xk+y1+y2+...+yk)/(2k)
But
avg(X)+avg(Y) = (X1+x2+...+xk)/k + (y1+y2+...+yk)/k
= (x1+x2+...+xk+y1+y2+...+yk)/k
So no, they are not the same , because the averages are off by a factor of 2 as you can see
by the denominators highlighted in bold. This is assuming, as stated, there are the SAME number of stats in each set.
Otherwise you will have k statistics in the first set and j statistics in the second set, where k and j are different. Then the equations become:
Avg(x) = (x1+x2+...+xk)/k and Avg(y) = (y1+y2+...+yj)/j
Avg(x+y) = ( x1+x2+...+xk+y1+y2+...+yj)/(j+k) while
Avg(x) + avg(y) = (x1+x2+...+xk)/k + (y1+y2+...+yj)/j
= j(x1+x2+...+xk) + k(y1+y2+..yj)/ (jk)
Not even close!!!