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Asked • 04/03/19

Is there any etymological motivation for “I-slam”, “I-srael”, “Mu-slim” and “I-smael”?

**Background**Looking at old German orthographies, the long-s (ſ) spelling of the following five words (and I have not found any others so far) contradicts the spelling systematics of all other words:> Iſrael, Iſlam, Moſlem, Iſmael, AſbeſtBroken down to what matters for these words, a longs would only be consistent with the spelling systematics, if it were at the beginning of a syllable. While this is the case for none of these words in their German pronunciation, I can at least explain the spelling of *Aſbeſt* to some extent: It originates from the Greek *ἄ-σβεστος* and thus the first*s* was at the beginning of a syllable or word part etymologically (the second longs is consistent anyway, since it is followed by a*t).* I now wonder whether there is a similar explanation for the other words.**Actual Question**Is there any etymological predecessor for any of the words *Israel, Islam, Moslem* (muslim) and *Ismael* (Ishmael), in which the*s* (or a corresponding sound) was at the beginning of a syllable or word part?

1 Expert Answer


Elijah R. answered • 11/22/19

New to Wyzant

I teach Arabs Arabic

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