Find an Online Tutor Now

Asked • 04/01/19

Etymology of conjugation 2-person singular?

Have a good day everyone! I would be glad if you answer my question.If we take a look at the conjugation of many Romance languages, we will see that their forms come from Latin. However there are some peculiarities.If we just look at French and Spanish, we will see that, in the 2nd person singular, the verbs have a common "-s" ending (*tu parleS*). However, Italian does not. Instead, it has an "-i" ending (*tu lascI*). So, why do we have the "-I" ending instead of the "-s" ending then? Is it due to some phonetic changes? I would be delighted, if someone could give me an example of how the verbs in this form changed over time.

1 Expert Answer

By:

Still looking for help? Get the right answer, fast.

Ask a question for free

Get a free answer to a quick problem.
Most questions answered within 4 hours.

OR

Find an Online Tutor Now

Choose an expert and meet online. No packages or subscriptions, pay only for the time you need.