Etymology of conjugation 2-person singular?

Question

Have a good day everyone! I would be glad if you answer my question.If we take a look at the conjugation of many Romance languages, we will see that their forms come from Latin. However there are some peculiarities.If we just look at French and Spanish, we will see that, in the 2nd person singular, the verbs have a common "-s" ending (*tu parleS*). However, Italian does not. Instead, it has an "-i" ending (*tu lascI*). So, why do we have the "-I" ending instead of the "-s" ending then? Is it due to some phonetic changes? I would be delighted, if someone could give me an example of how the verbs in this form changed over time.

Answer 1

This is an intriguing question. Italian of all the romance languages tends to have more unique endings, as if they dropped the Latin endings, leaving an "i" at the ends of their words, even in the second person singular.

Of course Italian is an amalgam of pre-national languages and dialects, such as Lombard, Tuscan, Amalfi Coast, and the like, as well as Latin, which, as it happens, goes back to what some humorously call, "those darn Etruscans!" 😫😅😯😡