Asked • 03/26/19

Palatalisation in French from Latin?

How does the Latin “*SAPIAT*” become “*sache*” [saʃ] in modern French?I thought the reason may be palatalisation as [ʃ] seems to be a palatal sound, but I can't think of any other examples to prove this theory.Any ideas?

1 Expert Answer

By:

Joshua W. answered • 12/02/19

Tutor
5.0 (43)

Experienced Graduate Student Specializing in Linguistics/Language

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