Why does Spanish have so many diphthongs compared to other Romance languages?
1 Expert Answer
Theresa B. answered 03/31/19
Fluent Spanish speaker with 4+ years of teaching/tutoring experience
Before answering, I would like to clarify that I am not a linguist, but I have studied the history of Spain extensively. The Iberian Peninsula was conquered and occupy by Moors between the years 711 and 1492 and during that time, Arabic became the dominant language of literature in the Iberian Peninsula and even became the preferred language for poetry and academia. As a result of this long period of influence, a large percent of Spanish vocabulary comes from Arabic (e.g. Ojalá and almohada). Italy did not have the same contact with the Arabic language which could explain the lack of dipthongs in modern day Italian. Additionally, Spain was invaded by Germanic tribes from the North before the Moors arrived and also has influences from Germanic languages like modern day German, which also uses dipthongs. In the case of Spanish as it's spoken in Latin America, there are frequently influences from indigenous languages (e.g. the 'tl' sound in Mexico that makes 'tlayuda').
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Deanna M.
03/28/19