
Murtaza N. answered 01/06/14
Tutor
New to Wyzant
Math, Physics, Computer Programming, & Test Prep!
Hi Serenity!
This is a neat problem! You have: sin( sin-1x - cos-1x ) . Whenever you have anything like sin( A - B ), the formula for the Sine of the Difference of Two Angles is often useful:
sin ( A - B ) = sin(A) cos(B) - sin(B) cos(A)
In this case, we have:
sin( sin-1x - cos-1x ) = sin( sin-1x ) cos( cos-1x ) - sin( cos-1x ) cos( sin-1x )
Looks messy! First, note that sin( sin-1x ) and cos( cos-1x ) both equal x because you're taking inverse functions. So it's reduced to:
x * x - sin( cos-1x ) cos( sin-1x )
Now, this next part is tricky to explain on this message board, but it turns out that both cos( sin-1x ) and sin( cos-1x ) equal √(1-x2). This is *much more easily seen* with a diagram, but I've included an algebraic proof on the bottom in lieu of a drawing. So, inserting √(1-x2) into what we've got so far gives:
x * x - √(1-x2) * √(1-x2)
x2 - (1-x2)
2x2 - 1
Voila. Now, if you wanna see why sin( cos-1x ) = √(1-x2) the ugly way without a drawing, proceed below.
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We're trying to find the value of A:
A = sin( cos-1x ) . Let θ = cos-1x. Then, substituting, we get A = sin(θ).
Let's look at θ = cos-1x for a bit. It means x = cos(θ).
But if A = sin(θ) and x = cos(θ), and since sin2(θ) + cos2(θ) = 1, that means A2 + x2 = 1. Thus A = √(1-x2)
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