Kenneth S. answered 03/08/16
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I unveil the mysteries and secrets of trigonometry & you'll love it.
(1-cos^2(x)) = sin2x
So the given expression can be written as sin2x(1+cos2x)/cos2x which can combine the first part of the numerator & the denominator to become tan2x, so we now have
tan2x(1+cos2x) = tan2x + sin2x
since tan2x = sin2x / cos2x & marvelous cancellation occurs when distribution is applied.