Dal J. answered • 04/01/15

Expert Instructor in Complex Subjects and Public Speaking

Mituku is right in general, but wrong in his conclusion about the second one being the same question.

The second question asks about the probability AFTER you have drawn a red ball from Bag A. and put it into bag B. That means that the 20% failure rate in the first draw no longer matters.

At that point, there are 2 red balls and 4 nonred balls in Bag B. So, the probability is 2/6, which simplifies to 1/3.

Katie C.

04/01/15