Dal J. answered 04/01/15
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Mituku is right in general, but wrong in his conclusion about the second one being the same question.
The second question asks about the probability AFTER you have drawn a red ball from Bag A. and put it into bag B. That means that the 20% failure rate in the first draw no longer matters.
At that point, there are 2 red balls and 4 nonred balls in Bag B. So, the probability is 2/6, which simplifies to 1/3.
Katie C.
04/01/15