Raymond B. answered 02/01/22
Math, microeconomics or criminal justice
5 red 42 balls. Odds of one red = 5/42. Odds of red on the 2nd draw is 4/41
odds of two reds on two draws is 5/42(4/41) = 5/21(2/41) = 10/861
7 pink out of 42 means 7/42 = 1/6 chance of pink on one draw
chance of pick on 2nd draw is 6/41. chance of 2 pinks is (1/6)(6/41 = 1/41
30 black out of 42 means 32/40 = 16/20 chance of one black.
chance of 2nd black = 31/39. chance of two blacks = (16/20)(31/39) = (4/5)(31/39) = 124/195
chance of getting two of the same color on 2 draws without replacement is
10/861 + 1/41 + 124/195
= .0116144
+ 0,024390
+ 0.635897
= 0.67190 = about 67.2%
= slightly better than 2/3 chance of 2 of the same color
or add the 3 fractions by putting them over a common denominator, then sum their new numerators and get the exact probability of 2 of the same color.