Tom K. answered 01/04/22
Knowledgeable and Friendly Math and Statistics Tutor
We use C() for combinations and P() for permutations below.
It's interesting to start with an argument assuming independence, then see how closely you come.
If 3 people have equal chances of a selection and we make 3 selections, the probability of each getting 1 is
3!/(1!1!1!)(1/3)^3 = 2/9. We should expect our answer to be a little greater than this.
The number of ways that we can have 1 player with the 2, 1 with the 3, 1 with the 4, and 1 with the 5 is
4! C(48,12)C(36,12)C(24,12) = 4! * 48!/(12!)^4
The number of ways that we can have 1 player with the 5 of clubs and nothing lower is 4 * C(48,12) (any of the 4 can have this hand).
Then, the next player can have C(39,13) hands, and the next player C(26,13) hands. C(39,13)*C(26,13) = 39!/(13!)^3.
Thus, the total number of hands with one player having the 5 and nothing lower is
4 * C(48,12)*39!/(13!)^3
Thus, given this hand with the 5 and nothing lower, the chance of the other 3 having the 2, 3, and 4 in any order is
4! * 48!/(12!)^4/(4 * 48!/(36!12!)*39!/(13!)^3)) =
6*13^3/P(39,3) =
13^2/(19*37) =
169/703 =
.240398
As we hypothesized, this is a little bit greater than 2/9 = .222222, the probability assuming independence, as we expected.