Christopher T. answered 02/13/21
It's important to recall that for any arbitrary integer n, we must have n2≥0. With that said, if a and b are positive integers, then a-b is an integer and so it follows that (a-b)2≥0. Foiling out the left hand side yields
(a-b)2≥0 ⇒ a2-2ab+b2≥0 ⇒ a2+b2≥2ab.
Finally, we can divide both sides by ab (since ab ≠ 0 because a and b are positive integers) to get the following:
a2+b2≥2ab ⇒ a2/(ab)+b2/(ab)≥2 ⇒ a/b+b/a≥2.
This completes the proof.