Tom K. answered 01/15/21
Knowledgeable and Friendly Math and Statistics Tutor
ln to the base 1/5 is just - ln to the base 5, as (1/5)^n = 5^-n
They are trying to write the answer as simply as possible.
To show the answer, we can show that the inverse transformation is - ln(x-5)/ln(5) - see below. This equals ln(x-5)/ln(1/5). Then, as lna b = ln b/ln a, this can be re-expressed as ln1/5(x-5)
To prove the inverse transformation, why not do this in steps. First, if z = 5x, then ln z = x ln 5, or x = ln z/ln 5
Then, if y = (5^(1+x) +1)/(5^x), then y = (5z + 1)/z, so zy = 5z+1, or zy-5z = 1 or z(y-5) = 1, or z = 1/(y-5)
Then, as x = ln z/ln 5, x = ln((1/(y-5))/ln 5 = - ln(y-5)/ln(5); thus, the inverse transformation is -ln(x-5)/ln(5)