
Kyle P. answered 10/29/20
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- There is a 50% chance (1/2) of choosing box #1 and an 80% chance (4/5) of picking a red chip so P(red chip from box #1) = (1/2) * (4/5) = 4/10 = 40%
- Since we are given that box #1 is picked, this takes away the 50% chance of choosing either box, therefore P(red chip given box #1) = 4/5 = 80%
- Since we are given that box #1 is picked and there are no black chips in box #1, P(black chip given box #1) = 0%