
Micky A. answered 09/23/20
Passionate PhD student and highly ranked instructor
The correct answer is E, and I can show you why this is important:
If we define rational numbers as used in the proof above, then a and b can be any real numbers (b =/= 0). We know that pi and 1 are both real numbers, and therefore pi / 1 = pi is rational. However, we know that pi is irrational, so does dividing by 1 make it rational? Of course not, and that's why this definition of rational numbers needs strengthening.