
Terry F. answered 05/23/19
PhD, MBA, MA(math) Math, Statistics, Economics,Finance, Physics, Comp.
+This is a binomial distribution problem
Let p = probability of a success in this case Pr ( belt fails = .02 Then ( 1- p ) = .98 = Pr ( belt does not fail )
Then Pr belt fails x times in n trials is given by: nCrx ( p )x ( 1-p )n-x where nCrx is the number of combinations of x items taken from n items
Also note that the probability at least one belt fails equals 1- Pr ( 0 belts fail in 115 trials ) so we need to calculate that probability
Pr ( 0 fails in 115 ties ) = 115Cr0 ( .02 )0 (.98 )115 = 1 (1) (.98)115 = .0979 and 1 - .0979 =
.9021 which is at least .9