Consider the following argument

Question

Consider the following argument:

There’s no doubt that we have free will. But if everything were subject to causal determination, then we would not have free will. So, surely not everything is subject to causal determination.

1. State the conclusion of the argument.
2. Is the argument inductive or deductive?
3a. If you said inductive, is the argument strong?
3b. If you said deductive, is the argument valid?

Answer 1

This is just Kant's Third Antinomy restated

I will give the coolest argument against lack of free will and it is based on the very arguing in which you suggest it !!

This is Aquinas

But man acts from judgment, because by his apprehensive power he judges that something should be avoided or sought. But because this judgment, in the case of some particular act, is not from a natural instinct, but from some act of comparison in the reason, therefore he acts from free judgment and retains the power of being inclined to various things. For reason in contingent matters may follow opposite courses, as we see in dialectic syllogisms and rhetorical arguments. Now particular operations are contingent, and therefore in such matters the judgment of reason may follow opposite courses and is not determinate to one. And forasmuch as man is rational is it necessary that man have a free will.