
Kris V. answered 06/30/17
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Experienced Mathematics, Physics, and Chemistry Tutor
The probability that at least 1 will fail
= 1 - The probability that both pass
= 1 -(0.8)2
= 0.36
This is an application of the binomial distribution
P{X = k} = C(n,k)pk(1-p)n-k
The longer way to do this problem to illustrate the use of the above formula.
The probability that at least 1 will fail = The probability that one will fail + The probability that both will fail
P{X ≥ 1}= P{X = 1} + P{X = 2}
= C(2,1)(0.2)1(1-0.2)2-1 + C(2,2)(0.2)2(1-0.2)2-2
= 2(0.2)(0.8) + (1) (0.2)2 (1)
= 0.36

Kris V.
You are welcome.
The binomial distribution has numerous applications, and you may need to use it in the future. So you may want to memorize it.
Just write it BIG in INK and posted it near a desk and/or bed, you will remember it in no time.
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