Ellie T.

asked • 11/17/15

If a quadrilateral has one pair of opposite congruent sides and one pair of opposite congruent angles why does that not prove that it is a parallelogram?

please answer quickly!!!!

1 Expert Answer

By:

Jamani P. answered • 11/17/15

Tutor
New to Wyzant

Jamani P. k-6 math, reading, and language. Pre-Algebra & algebra.

See tutors like this
See tutors like this
Because a parallelogram has 2 pair of opposite congruent sides and 2 pair of opposite congruent angles. 
 
In your example, although 1 pair of opposite angles/sides are congruent, the other sides could not be congruent and could possible intersect, denying it the title of a parallelogram, by definition.  
Upvote • 1 Downvote
More
Report

Soni P.

But it couldn't intersect since it is parallel.
Report

11/11/21

Jamani P.

Not in their example. They have a quadrilateral with only one set of congruent sides and angles so if the others aren't, it wouldn't be parallel.
Report

11/11/21

Still looking for help? Get the right answer, fast.

Ask a question for free

Get a free answer to a quick problem.
Most questions answered within 4 hours.

OR

Find an Online Tutor Now

Choose an expert and meet online. No packages or subscriptions, pay only for the time you need.