Andrew B. answered 05/09/24
PhD in Applied Physics with 10+ Years of College Teaching Experience
a) Both spheres have zero net charge. The spheres themselves are both conductors, so electrons can easily move about it. That means that the sides of the spheres closest to the positively charged rod will be negatively charged (since opposite charges attract), and the part of the sphere furthest from the rod will be positively charged. Since those negative charges are closer, each sphere will have a net attractive force to the rod.
Sphere 2 is connected a large metal object, and sphere 1 is isolated. Since sphere 2 has a greater pool of freely moving electrons, it should be more polarized and have a stronger attraction to the rod than sphere 1 has.
b) Both spheres are now connected to the metal beam, so charges can easily move through each piece. Assuming the rod was initially placed between the spheres, both spheres start with the negative side of their polarizations facing each. Those negative charges will repel, and so the charges should redistribute themselves and the spheres should lose their polarizations and should return to their original positions
c) Without knowing anything about electromagnetism, the two forces must be equal and opposite of each other, as according to Newton's 3rd Law of Motion!


Andrew B.
05/10/24

Anthony T.
Sphere 1 will have a net zero charge. Sphere 2 will retain its excess negative charge; therefore, sphere 2 will polarize sphere 1 and cause the two spheres to attract each other. Make sense?05/10/24

Andrew B.
05/11/24
Anthony T.
b) The filaments of each sphere are dry and non-conductive, so how can they be connected to the metal beam?05/09/24