
Martin C. answered 02/24/24
Santa Ana Math Tutor, Algebra 1 Through AP Calculus BC
You are correct; the answer is sec(theta). To see why, first remember that cot = 1 / tan, and therefore tan + cot = tan + (1/tan) = (tan^2 + 1) / tan. Then, since tan^2 + 1 = sec^2, we can reduce sin * (tan + cot) to sin * sec^2 / tan. Finally, since sin / cos = tan, sin / tan = cos, and sin * (tan + cot) = cos * sec^2, which is clearly equal to sec because cos = 1 / sec.