You are correct; the answer is sec(theta). To see why, first remember that cot = 1 / tan, and therefore tan + cot = tan + (1/tan) = (tan^2 + 1) / tan. Then, since tan^2 + 1 = sec^2, we can reduce sin * (tan + cot) to sin * sec^2 / tan. Finally, since sin / cos = tan, sin / tan = cos, and sin * (tan + cot) = cos * sec^2, which is clearly equal to sec because cos = 1 / sec.
Kay G.
asked 02/24/24Help me is the answer sec?
Which of the following is equivalent to sin(theta) * (tan(theta) + cot(theta))' ?
A) (cos(theta) + 1)/(cos(theta) - 1);
B)cos(theta)
C)sin(theta)
D) sec(theta)
E)tan(theta)
F)None of the above
2 Answers By Expert Tutors
Raymond B. answered 10/15/25
Math, microeconomics or criminal justice
sinx(tanx + cotx) = sinx(sinx/cosx + cosx/sinx)
= sin^2(x)/cosx + cosx
= sin^2(x)/cosx + cos^2(x)/cosx
= (sin^2(x) +cos^2(x))/cosx
= 1/cosx
= secx
option D) is correct
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