Hi Tyler A.!
The magnetic field of a loop is given by:
B = NμoI/2r
Where:
- N is the number of loops
- μo is the permeability of free space
In our example above, we can reasonably deduce that there is only one loop. In which case, N = 1 and we need not include it our equation:
B = μoI/2r
We already have most of the information required to answer this question. However, we must first convert the diameter into the radius:
d = 2r => r = (1/2)d
<=> (1/2)(0.5cm)
r = 0.25 cm = 2.5x10-3 m
Now, we simply rearrange our equation and solve for the current:
B = μoI/2r => I = B(2r)/μo
=> μo = 4*pi x 10-7 T*m*A-1 = 1.25x10-6 T*m*A-1
<=> [(2.00x10-3 T)(2*2.5x10-3 m)]/(4*pi x 10-7 T*m*A-1)
I = 7.996 A
Hope this helps!
Cheers