Daniel B. answered 12/23/21
A retired computer professional to teach math, physics
I am going to measure all angles in radians.
That will make the arc with angle θ to have the length Rθ, for any angle θ.
Therefore, instead of 90°– α I will write π/2 - α.
I am assuming that "point-pike" is to be "point-like", which means that the mass has
moment of inertia 0.
I am assuming that the assumption α << 1 allows us to approximate sin(θ) ≈ θ for any θ ≤ α.
For simplicity I am going to write F instead of Ffr.
a)
After the first half period, the mass reaches the other side of the shell at a maximum
deviation π/2-β, for some β < α.
We have two unknowns -- F and β, and we are going to write two equations to solve.
The two equations are going to describe the loss of energy due to friction
during the first and second half-period.
During the first half period the mass travels over an arc of angle π-β;
therefore the force of friction will perform work equal
R(π-β)F
This work equals the loss of potential energy at the end of the first half period, which is
mgRsin(β) ≈ mgRβ.
So the work-energy equivalence is expressed by
R(π-β)F = mgRβ
Simplify into
(π-β)F = mgβ (1)
So
F = mgβ/(π-β) (2)
During the second half period the mass travels over an arc of angle π-β-α;
therefore the force of friction will perform work equal
R(π-β-α)F
This work equals the loss of potential energy at the end of the first half period,
which is
mgRsin(α) - mgRsin(β) ≈ mgR(α-β).
So the work-energy equivalence is expressed by
R(π-β-α)F = mgR(α-β)
Rewrite it as
(π-β)F - αF = mgα - mgβ
Using (1)
mgβ - αF = mgα - mgβ
So
F = mg(2β - α)/α (3)
Substituting from (2)
mgβ/(π-β) = mg(2β - α)/α
Simplify into
β/(π-β) = (2β - α)/α
αβ = 2πβ - 2β² - πα + αβ
2β² - 2πβ + πα = 0
β = (2π ± √(4π² - 8πα))/4 = (π ± √(π² - 2πα))/2
Only the solution where β < π/2 makes physical sense, so
β = (π - √(π² - 2πα))/2 (4)
Plugging this into (2) and simplifying
F = mg(π - √(π² - 2πα))/(π + √(π² - 2πα)) (5)
Equation (5) is the formula for the force of friction derived under the approximation
sin(α) ≈ α and sin(β) ≈ β.
Let's see if we can further simplify (5) taking advantage of α << 1.
I will show that as α->0, β->α/2.
Use equation (4) and consider the ratio
β/α = ((π/α) - √((π/α)² - 2(π/α)))/2
= ((π/α) - √((π/α)² - 2(π/α) + 1 - 1))/2
= ((π/α) - √((π/α) - 1)² - 1))/2
As α->0,
the quotient π/α->∞,
so ((π/α) - 1)²->∞,
(π/α) - 1)² - 1 becomes increasingly equal (π/α) - 1)²
Therefore
lim(β/α) = lim(((π/α) - √((π/α) - 1)² - 1))/2)
= lim(((π/α) - √((π/α) - 1)²)/2)
= lim(1/2) = 1/2
Therefore when α << 1 we can approximate β ≈ α/2.
The interesting thing is that if we substitute β=α/2 into equation (3) we would get F = 0.
That means that the approximation β=α/2 is too inaccurate for calculating F.
Nevertheless, we can get a simplification of (5) if we use β=α/2 in (4):
α/2 = (π - √(π² - 2πα))/2
From that
√(π² - 2πα) = π - α
Then we can simplify (5) into
F = mgα/(2π-α)
b)
Consider the mass at an angle θ with respect to the vertical.
The range of θ is -π/2 ≤ θ ≤ π/2
At that angle θ calculate the potential energy with respect to the bottom of the shell.
The mass is at height R - Rcos(θ).
So the potential energy is
U(θ) = mgR(1 - cos(θ))
Now derive the formula for the kinetic energy K(θ).
At the top, where θ = π/2
U(π/2) = mgR
and we are given that
K(π/2) = 0
So by conservation of energy
K(θ) = mgR - mgR(1 - cos(θ)) = mgRcos(θ)
The area below the graph of K(θ) is
∫K(θ)dθ = ∫mgRcos(θ)dθ = mgRsin(θ) + K(0) = mgRsin(θ) + MgR = mgR(sin(θ) + 1)