Joel L. answered 04/19/21
MS Mathematics coursework with 20+ Years of Teaching Experience
Yes, the general solution to y' = sin (x) is
y = C - cos(x)
Initial condition:
y(π/2) = 1 is same as x=π/2, y=1
Common mistake: The phrase "y of pi over 2" doesn't mean "y times pi over 2". It means "y as a function of pi over 2". We were taught that the word "of" means multiplication and that is correct. However, it's not always like that and this problem is a good example.
substitute: 1 = C - cos (π/2)
cos (π/2) = 0
∴ 1 = C - 0
∴ C = 1
Therefore, the particular solution is:
y = 1 - cos(x)
Sreeram K.
Thank you v much04/19/21