Rahul A.

asked • 01/30/21

DOUBT IN INSTANTANEOUS ACCELERATION AND VELOCITY

i have understood the definitions of both instantaneous acceleration and velocity. i am also clear about average acceleration and velocity. Instantaneous acceleration is the acceleration of the object at some instant in time and can be found by taking the derivate of the velocity function.

 but i still have this confusion around instantaneous acceleration, how exactly does instantaneous acceleration affects the velocity.


For eg; lets take this problem.


A particle is in motion and is accelerating. The functional form of the velocity is v(t) = 20t − 5t^2 m/s.


Find the instantaneous velocity at t = 1, 2, 3, and 5 s.

Find the instantaneous acceleration at t = 1, 2, 3, and 5 s.


Solution

a=dv/dt= 20-10t m/s^2


v(1 s) = 15 m/s, a(1 s) = 10m/s^2

v(2 s) = 20 m/s, a(2 s) = 0m/s^2,

v(3 s) = 15 m/s, a(3 s) = −10m/s^2,

v(4 s) = 0 m/s, a(4 s) = -20m/s^2

v(5 s) = −25 m/s, a(5 s) = −30m/s^2



Now lets see instantaneous acceleration and velocity between 1 to 2 sec


Avg acceleration between 1 to 2 sec would be v2-v1 /t2-t1 = 5m/s^2.


v(1 s) = 15m/s ,   a(1 s) = 10m/s^2

v(1.1s) = 15.95m/s, a(1.1 s) = 9m/s^2

v(1.2s) = 16.8m/s,  a(1.2 s) = 8m/s^2

v(1.3s) = 17.55m/s,  a(1.3 s) = 7m/s^2

v(1.4s) = 18.2m/s  a(1.4 s) = 6m/s^2

v(1.5s) = 18.75m/s  a(1.5 s) = 5m/s^2

v(1.6s) = 19.2m/s  a(1.6 s) = 4m/s^2

v(1.7s) = 19.55m/s  a(1.7 s) = 3m/s^2

v(1.8s) = 19.8m/s  a(1.8 s) = 2m/s^2

v(1.9s) = 19.95m/s  a(1.9 s) = 1m/s^2

v(2 s) = 20m/s    a(2 s) =  0m/s^2


i just want to know this.

Acceleration is change in velocity right? when acceleration happens at an instant, say v1 might be changing to v2. so the instantaneous change at t=1 is 10m/s^2 i.e at t=1 there was increase in velocity by 10m/s^2? why cant wee see that change in the table? i maybe sounding silly or dumb but i dont know what s happening here.i hope you get what i am asking. thank you.  


2 Answers By Expert Tutors

By:

Anthony T. answered • 01/30/21

Tutor
5 (53)

Patient Science Tutor

Rahul A.

See at t=1 we have inst velocity v=15 m/s ok? then you are saying it already has an acceleration of 10m/s^2, that means the body accelerated itself to 10m/s2 right?? even if it didnt last for a second,if it accelerates that much at an instant,it could change its velocity within the completion of that second .it could change itself before the completion of that second . if it could accelerate itself at that instant then it could change itself before the completion of that secondwhat is the need of completeing that second . And also what is v1 and v2 here if it had an acceleration of 10m/s^2 . Why cant it change itself when it accelerated itself to 10m/s^2 at that instant .
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01/30/21

Anthony T.

Rahul, let's say we are plotting a velocity function vs. time. When the velocity is let's say 20 m/s, it changes instantaneously to 30 m/s. What would the curve look like at that point? It would be a vertical line from 20 m/s to 30 m/s. As instantaneous implies a zero time difference. the acceleration would be infinite!
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01/31/21

Rahul A.

ok i understood ,the objects acceleration was decreasing right from the start and as its decreasing, at some point say t=1 it has been 10m/s^2 right?
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01/31/21

Rahul A.

but still one last question and doubt that s still with me is that, we know acceleration is the change in velocity,right? if at that particular instant i.e t=1s the instantaneous accelreation is 10m/s^2 i.e the velocity was changing at that rate at that instant. but the next instant it changes.right? hey can you give an example from this data say if a car was moving at v=15m/s at t=1 and has acceleration of a=10m/s^2 at that instant.
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01/31/21

Rahul A.

just want to ask that if a particular body has an acceleration at an instant means its velocity is changin or has changed itself?
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01/31/21

Rahul A.

just answer these and i wont bother you or irritate you i know i am annoying
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01/31/21

Anthony T.

Hi, Rahul Suppose you are driving along at 20 m/s, and you stomp on the pedal so that 0.1 s later you are up to 25 m/s. The calculated acceleration would be 25-20/0.1 = 50 m/s^2, but obviously at 0.1 s later you are not going 70 m/s. But if you continued to accelerate at that constant rate, you would be going 70 m/s after 1 full second. The term "instantaneous acceleration" doesn't mean that your velocity increases by the value of the calculated acceleration instantaneously. By the way, you are not annoying; it shows that you are trying to really understand what is going on.
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01/31/21

Rahul A.

thank you sir. so its like the body has been accelerated by 10m/s^2 at that instant but before the velocity could change that much , the acceleration changes the next instant right. its like accelerating a car or say whatever but u ve also got ur brakes on, and u dont move much even if u have accelerated, and the next instant you stop or start decreasing acceleration or say the acceleration is changed. hey thanks a lot u ve helped me a lot i really appreciate it.thank you very much.
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02/01/21

Rahul A.

i also understood that above u calculated the 50m/s^2 acceleration for whole second and that the object would move 5mts after 0.1 sec thank you sir i got it.
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02/01/21

Anthony T.

You are very welcome. Tutors appreciate getting feedback from students.
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02/01/21

Rahul A.

See at t=1 we have inst velocity v=15 m/s ok? then you are saying it already has an acceleration of 10m/s^2, that means the body accelerated itself to 10m/s2 right?? even if it didnt last for a second,if it accelerates that much at an instant,it could change its velocity within the completion of that second .it could change itself before the completion of that second . if it could accelerate itself at that instant then it could change itself before the completion of that secondwhat is the need of completeing that second . And also what is v1 and v2 here if it had an acceleration of 10m/s^2 . Why cant it change itself when it accelerated itself to 10m/s^2 at that instant .
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01/30/21

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