
Anthony T. answered 01/30/21
Patient Science Tutor
At t = 1 sec, the velocity doesn't instantly change by 10 m/s.
Consider this: At t = 1.1 sec, the formula says the velocity is 15.95 m/s. the average acceleration from 15.0 m/s to 15.95 m/s is 0.95 / 0.1 = 9.5 m/s-2. This doesn't mean that the velocity changed by 9.5 m/s during that 0.1 s. The change in velocity would be 9.5 m/s-2 x 0.1 s or 0.95 m/s which is what the formula predicts. The acceleration you calculate from the equation 20 - 10t is the instantaneous rate of change of velocity. hope this helps.

Anthony T.
Rahul, let's say we are plotting a velocity function vs. time. When the velocity is let's say 20 m/s, it changes instantaneously to 30 m/s. What would the curve look like at that point? It would be a vertical line from 20 m/s to 30 m/s. As instantaneous implies a zero time difference. the acceleration would be infinite!01/31/21
Rahul A.
ok i understood ,the objects acceleration was decreasing right from the start and as its decreasing, at some point say t=1 it has been 10m/s^2 right?01/31/21
Rahul A.
but still one last question and doubt that s still with me is that, we know acceleration is the change in velocity,right? if at that particular instant i.e t=1s the instantaneous accelreation is 10m/s^2 i.e the velocity was changing at that rate at that instant. but the next instant it changes.right? hey can you give an example from this data say if a car was moving at v=15m/s at t=1 and has acceleration of a=10m/s^2 at that instant.01/31/21
Rahul A.
just want to ask that if a particular body has an acceleration at an instant means its velocity is changin or has changed itself?01/31/21
Rahul A.
just answer these and i wont bother you or irritate you i know i am annoying01/31/21

Anthony T.
Hi, Rahul Suppose you are driving along at 20 m/s, and you stomp on the pedal so that 0.1 s later you are up to 25 m/s. The calculated acceleration would be 25-20/0.1 = 50 m/s^2, but obviously at 0.1 s later you are not going 70 m/s. But if you continued to accelerate at that constant rate, you would be going 70 m/s after 1 full second. The term "instantaneous acceleration" doesn't mean that your velocity increases by the value of the calculated acceleration instantaneously. By the way, you are not annoying; it shows that you are trying to really understand what is going on.01/31/21
Rahul A.
thank you sir. so its like the body has been accelerated by 10m/s^2 at that instant but before the velocity could change that much , the acceleration changes the next instant right. its like accelerating a car or say whatever but u ve also got ur brakes on, and u dont move much even if u have accelerated, and the next instant you stop or start decreasing acceleration or say the acceleration is changed. hey thanks a lot u ve helped me a lot i really appreciate it.thank you very much.02/01/21
Rahul A.
i also understood that above u calculated the 50m/s^2 acceleration for whole second and that the object would move 5mts after 0.1 sec thank you sir i got it.02/01/21

Anthony T.
You are very welcome. Tutors appreciate getting feedback from students.02/01/21
Rahul A.
See at t=1 we have inst velocity v=15 m/s ok? then you are saying it already has an acceleration of 10m/s^2, that means the body accelerated itself to 10m/s2 right?? even if it didnt last for a second,if it accelerates that much at an instant,it could change its velocity within the completion of that second .it could change itself before the completion of that second . if it could accelerate itself at that instant then it could change itself before the completion of that secondwhat is the need of completeing that second . And also what is v1 and v2 here if it had an acceleration of 10m/s^2 . Why cant it change itself when it accelerated itself to 10m/s^2 at that instant .01/30/21