Jon P. answered 02/11/15
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Saying that "no more than one marble is white" after drawing 2 marbles is the opposite/complement of "2 marbles are while". So if we can calculate the probability that 2 (both) marbles are white, we would subtract that from 1 to get the answer.
So first, there are a total of 16 marbles.
So the probability that the first marble would be while is 5 / 16.
After the first marble is put aside, there are now 4 white marbles left out of a total of 16. So the probability of picking a second marble is 4 / 16 = 1/4.
So the probability that both marbles are white is (5/16)(1/4) = 5/64.
So the probability that no more than one marble is white is 1 - 5/64 = 59/64.

Jon P.
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Yes! Sorry, my typo and then I didn't notice it the rest of the way.
So the probability of 2 white marbles is (5/16)(4/15) = 20 / 240 = 1/12. So the probability of no more than 1 white marble is 11/12.
My apologies!
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