Soumendra M. answered 01/26/15
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Learn and Enjoy Math-Phy-CS-EE
Using the series expansion, e^(i/2) =∑( k,0,infinity}(i/2)^k /k! Note that the real part consists of only the even k Re(e^(i/2)) = ∑(n,0,infinity}(i/2)^2n /(2n! ) = ∑(n,0,infinity} (i^2/ 2^2) ^n / (2n! ) = ∑(n,0,infinity} (-1/4)^n / (2n! ) = ∑(n,0,infinity} (-4^-1)^n / (2n! ) . = ∑(n,0,infinity} (-4)^-n / (2n! ) .. using (x^a)^b = x ^(ab)ButRe[e^(i/2) ] = Re[cos(1/2) + i sin(1/2)] --- using euler's theorem = cos(1/2) Therefore, ∑(n,0,infinity} (-4)^-n / (2n! ) = cos(1/2)