AR U. answered 10/24/19
Experienced Physics and Math Tutor [Edit]
Let
mb:mass of ball and mp: mass of pin
v1: initial velocity of ball and v2: final velocity of ball
vi: initial velocity of pin and vf: final velocity of pin
a) From the conservation of momentum: momentum before collision equals momentum after collision
Therefore,
mbv1 + mpvi = mbv2 + mpvf ; since initial velocity of the pin is zero, the (final) velocity of the pin is
vf = (mb/mp)(v1 - v2)
b) plugging in the known masses and velocities, you get the velocity of pin to be
vf = 2.19 m/s
c)The frictional force, fk = µkN = µkmpg = mpa [where "a" is acceleration and N is normal force]
==> a = -µkg = -.1(9.8m/s2) = - 0.98m/s2
With this acceleration value (ignore the negative sign since we care only about the magnitude), you can calculate how far the pin will slide before stopping using
d = vf2/2a = 2.45m
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You can equally find the time, t =vp/a = 2.23s, and then use d = .5at2 = 2.45m

AR U.
I forgot the negative sign infront of the frictional force : -f_k = m_pa10/24/19