Richard P. answered 08/07/19
PhD in Physics with 10+ years tutoring experience in STEM subjects
An easy way to work this problem is to note that the energy (which will be independent of time) is given by
E = (1/2) m v2 + m g (.1) x2
The time derivative of E is zero so
0 = m v a + m 2 (.1) g x v here a is the acceleration = dv/dt, Also note that the unit of .1 is 1/meter
cancelling out the m and v gives a = - 2 (.1) g x
Letting x = A cos(ω t) and noting that a is the second derivative of x leads to
ω2 = 2 (.1) g so ω = sqrt( .2 g )
The linear frequency, f, is ω/( 2 π) so f = sqrt( .2 g ) /(2 π)