Asked • 07/29/19

When is "seems to be" used instead of "seems"?

1. The baby seems happy/comfortable. 2. The baby seems to be happy/comfortable.Are these both correct? If both are correct, what are the differences between them?

1 Expert Answer

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Julie B. answered • 07/31/19

Tutor
4.9 (111)

Master's in TEFL/TESOL

Susan M.

There seems to be another possibility. There seem to be more possibilities. ???
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11/21/22

Julie B.

The word "there" is never a subject and so it does not influence the conjugation of the verb "seem." In the case of a sentence that starts with the word "there," we have to look for the subject after the verb(s). The subjects of your sentences are "another possibility" and "more possibilities, and the verbs are then used in the appropriate forms as you have given.
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11/21/22

Ifechukwu G.

Both sentences are correct, and the difference lies in subtle nuances of formality and style rather than meaning. Here's a detailed explanation: "The baby seems happy/comfortable." This is more direct and concise. It is often used in casual, everyday speech or writing. The adjective ("happy/comfortable") directly follows "seems," creating a straightforward statement about the baby's apparent state. "The baby seems to be happy/comfortable." This is slightly more formal or reflective. It uses the phrase "to be," which can suggest a bit more uncertainty or tentativeness in the observation. It can also add a sense of flow when used in a more complex sentence. Comparison: Formality: "Seems to be" feels slightly more formal or deliberate. Directness: "Seems" alone is more concise and direct. Emphasis: "Seems to be" might emphasize the process of appearing happy or comfortable, whereas "seems" is more focused on the state itself. Practical Use: In most situations, both phrases are interchangeable, as the difference is subtle. You can choose based on tone and context: Casual: "The baby seems happy." Reflective or formal: "The baby seems to be happy."
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01/17/25

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