
Dustin W. answered 06/18/19
Super Teacher
You would want to use the formula for Bernoulli trial: (n,k)*Pk *(1-P)(n-k) where:
P=probability of success
n=# of tirals
k= # of a specific outcome
and (n,k), also can be written an nCk, is the binomial coefficient and is equal to:
nCk= n!/[k!*(n-k)!]
For this problem, it will be easier to find the inverse or the chance of accepting the shipment ( meaning either 0, 1, or 2 defecting pens) and subtracting that likelyhood from 1.
A) P=.9 chance of working pen
1-P=.1=chance of defective pen
The case with 0 failures is (17,0)*.917*.10=[17!/(0!*(17-0)!]*.917*1=(17!/17!)*.917=1*.917=.167
Repeating for 1 failure gives (17,1)*.916*.11=17*.916*.11=.315
Repeating for 2 failures gives (17,2)*.915*.12=136*.915*.12=.280
The probability of accepting a package of 17 pens .762
The probability of rejecting a package of 17 pens is 1-.762=.238
B) Repeat part A, but with P=.8 and (1-P)=.2
The result is .299 probability of accepting and a .701 chance of rejecting