Had Keats read any of Homer's works before reading Chapman's translation of them?
In "On First Looking into Chapman's Homer," John Keats writes:
> Oft of one wide expanse had I been told <br/>
> That deep-browed Homer ruled as his demesne;<br/>
> Yet never did I breathe its pure serene<br/>
> Till I heard Chapman speak it loud and bold<br/>
Was Chapman's translation the first time Keats had read Homer whatsoever? Or had he been exposed to other English translations and/or the original Greek, and Chapman was simply the first time he appreciated Homer?