Asked • 06/06/19

Had Keats read any of Homer's works before reading Chapman's translation of them?

In "On First Looking into Chapman's Homer," John Keats writes: > Oft of one wide expanse had I been told <br/> > That deep-browed Homer ruled as his demesne;<br/> > Yet never did I breathe its pure serene<br/> > Till I heard Chapman speak it loud and bold<br/> Was Chapman's translation the first time Keats had read Homer whatsoever? Or had he been exposed to other English translations and/or the original Greek, and Chapman was simply the first time he appreciated Homer?

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